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Optimist123

Higgs:
Thanks for your comment on the previous version of this article. I found a math error in the calculations for quintile 1, and corrected it. When I deleted the original and reposted the corrected version, I forgot to save your comment. Feel free to repost it.

goy

Thanks for another excellent linkable, Steve. Always shining a light in the corners the MSM and politicians would rather remain dark, you are. I might quibble with the notion of using Heinlein's Razor in this particular case though. It's been apparent for a long time that contemporary journalistic accountability doesn't include investigations even as seemingly straightforward as the ones you provide here on your site. As such, it's hard not to see active malice in the noise they spew. At some point unwillingness to seek the truth on behalf of one's audience crosses the line from spreading false rumors to actively lying, IMHO. We've certainly seen plenty of that recently.

On a related note, how does the $1.x trillion loss last week affect the debt-to-GDP ratio clock? I noticed a recent jump in the ratio, is that what caused it?

Thanks again!

Steve C

Interesting article. Why is it better to pay attention to earners rather than households?

Optimist123

Steve C:

In short, to eliminate what statisticians call "spurious" relationships. It might look as if X caused Y, but in reality X might cause Z, which may or may not cause Y. The early-morning crowing rooster might look like the cause of the frost on the grass melting, but there's really an intervening variable: the sunrise.

For example, if a two-earner married couple gets divorced, thereby splitting one household into two, "household" income stats appear to have deteriorated (same income divided by 2 instead of 1), even though earner stats may have improved.

Even the "income per earner" stats can be improved in accuracy -- by controlling for full-time vs part time, and full-year vs part-year work. I didn't have time for that (yet).

mark

Steve,
Could you clarify a few points for me. The median income chart is in constant 2006 dollars. The income group charts are nominal so they are not corrected for inflation. True? And the last dynamic chart showing income per earner does not specify real or nominal. Do you know which it is? And lastly, the real income only corrects for core inflation, unfortunately most of us have to put gas in our cars and heat our homes. Do you think that should be factored into the equation?

Optimist123

Mark:
Yes, the median chart is "real" HH income adjusted to 2006 using CPI-U-RS. The others are not adjusted, because it doesn't change the outcome: no matter which inflation indicator one uses to adjust the numbers, the lines are the same shape, are in the same relative position, and are virtually identical to inflation-adjusted disposable personal income per capita.

Another way to say it: Overall average growth in real disposable personal income per capita (i.e., the economy's average growth) was distributed essentially equally in the growth of real money income per earner across the household quintiles and deciles shown.

I wish I could think of a shorter way of saying it.

In any case, the following two statements are true (...and the second one deserves a big "duh"):

1: "Income earners within the middle class and lower quintiles (and deciles) shared the overall economy's growth rate."

2: "People who earned no income experienced stagnant incomes."

Bob

Steve,

Great facts. Only thing is, right now folks are ignoring facts and rational thought.

A number of years ago I was in "Change Management" training (ugh). The best thing I learned was management speaking facts but the rank and file heard feelings. That's right. Emotions play more.

Right now and, for some time actually, emotions have been in play. Never underestimate the power of emotions.

BTW, it's the last bar that has folks riled up. Make it smaller by giving the increases to the middle guys. Wrong headed, yes. Reality, absolutely.

Steve C

This gets into a more complicated question of what numbers are meaningful in what context.

To take an extreme example, if there were a total of three earners in town, and their incomes were rising, but there were 10,000 households full of other people, you wouldn't describe that town as doing well.

I don't think it's evident without further information that the household "unit" is inappropriate to use. Maybe people who get paid to think about this have looked at it from all the angles and decided that this household incomes are the thing to track - the household unit best captures some aggregate information that best indicates what's happening with income equality. Maybe someone is choosing households because it tells the story they want to see told. I don't know. I think you're asserting the latter, but I can't tell why.

OBloodyHell

Another couple elements to the quantitative analysis --

1) The cost of just about everything has been steadily dropping for the last 75-odd years, in terms of percentage of income required (or number of hours of work required... both are similar). Over at Carpe Diem there have been several graphs of this sort of thing in the last six-odd months, for Clothing, Food, and Gasoline.

2) Another element is that family/household size has steadily decreased, which means that a "stagnant" income is being distributed among a smaller group of people, meaning that the individuals involved each has more disposable income, regardless of the household aggregate.

mark

I am still a bit confused on some of the numbers Steve. I found nominal GDP for the 1st qtr 1994 to be 6.9 trillion and 1st qtr 2008 to be 14.0 trillion. That's an increase of 103%. So if nominal incomes kept pace with nominal gdp growth all the income groups should have slightly more than doubled in income. But it looks like most are up around 60%. If nominal gdp growth was 60% over the time period, it would be 9.6 trillion. So 4.4 trillion is missing. Did all of it go to inflation and population (work force) growth? Anywhere else it can go?

Optimist123

All:
See the new addendum to the article.

Optimist123

Mark:

There's more to GDP than personal income. Disposable personal income (per capita) is about as close an aggregate indicator of growth as we can get to money income per earner. That's why I used disposable personal income per capita, which grew at an average annual rate of 3.2% for the thirteen-year period.

I will say again that the shape of the lines and the spread among quintiles will look the same, regardless of which deflator is chosen to turn nominal numbers into "real" numbers. I don't have time to do it. Volunteers are welcome to take up the challenge; all it will do is change the numbers on the Y-axis, but be my guest.

Here are a few growth rates, for reference, regarding the 13-year period in question:

(HHI = household income; DPI = disposable personal income; GDP = gross domestic product)

nominal median HHI: 3.5%
real median HHI: 0.9%
nominal GDP per capita: 4.1%
nominal DPI per capita: 3.2%
real DPI per capita: 2.1%

Also, "per capita" is important. The BEA publishes the population numbers in its tables for personal income.

STS

Interesting post. If earner incomes at all levels were growing fairly steadily and at similar rates, why does the household income graph go through that dip during the past 8 years?

I understand that you are attributing the apparent stagnation to changing distribution of earners per household. But what has been happening to reduce earners per household?

spencer

Why is it that all the data you use to disprove the point that incomes stagnated after 2000 run from 1994 on.

Aren't you able to use the same time periods for the two types of series?

I haven't bothered to look at your data because I always just jump to the conclusion that someone pulling data from one time period to prove something about another time period is playing fast and loose with the data.

Can you show me why this assumption is not true in this case?

Optimist123

STS:
I'll list some possibilities, but it's a good question for further research by someone. First of all, the household income series is "real" money income, so it doesn't slope up as steeply as nominal income, due to inflation of around 2% or so. But there are still several demography variables not isolated that could explain a lot of the dip besides changes in earners per household, such as: addition of lower-earning immigrants to the working population; the proportion of earners working at part-time vs full-time jobs; the proportion who worked "50+ weeks" vs "26-49 weeks" vs "less than 26 weeks"; and the proportion of households in which nobody worked. I didn't have time to control for those, but eventually plan to do just that in a multiple regression that will find the correlation of quintile-by-quintile earnings growth to overall per-capita GDP and DPI growth, controlling for all that stuff.

Optimist123

spencer:
It's a lot simpler than the conspiracy theory you seem to have formulated. First, I used 1994-2007 for every time series. Second, I started with 1994 because that's as far back as the Census Bureau data goes (...try clicking on the link I posted to their data).

I respectfully suggest you reconsider just jumping to your standard conclusion all the time.

Baggi

I think the answer is right in front of our faces. The housing boom.

The housing boom created more households but didn't really create that much more income. In San Diego many immigrants share a home until they are able to move out on their own. During the housing boom, some married friends of mine lived with their parents until they were able to get their own home.

So during the housing boom of the last 8 years, many workers were able to get their own homes creating more "households".

Now that the housing boom is over and all these homes are going into foreclosure, one can reasonably expect the "Household" numbers to go back up, as earners will consolidate back into the homes they originally came from.

Jarrod Myrick

Great work, Skeptical Optimist. Explosive growth of upper middle class the most under-reported, under-recognized event of our times.

Is it simply a matter of being on the right side of compounded interest?

bill

mark, thanks for the charts. i'm puzzing over two issues.

you said: "the median chart is "real" HH income adjusted to 2006 using CPI-U-RS. The others are not adjusted, because it doesn't change the outcome: no matter which inflation indicator one uses to adjust the numbers, the lines are the same shape, are in the same relative position, and are virtually identical to inflation-adjusted disposable personal income per capita."

you don't mention "same slope". if inflation was greater than zero for those years, then the lines on the chart would be flatter, indicating less growth. if inflation was more than about 3 1/2% (i don't know if it was or not) then the lines would be flat, indicating stagnation.

[sorry, i'm always cautious when monetary items are not inflation adjusted.]

the other aspect i'm trying to get my mind around is your leaving off the uppermost quintile/decile. since you are only talking about middle class incomes, that does make some sense. but if you wanted to know if the middle class incomes are stagnant "compared to the top incomes" then you need the figures for that top quintile/decile.

STS

Bill,

I think Steve is simply missing those numbers for top decile/quintile because they aren't collected by the Census Bureau.

Jarrod,

You're making the same mistake as the Census Bureau -- adopting the artificial convention that income greater than $100k makes you "upper middle class". It depends where you live and inflation has probably been higher than reported. Cheaper/faster computers don't really make your cost of living lower, but official statistics pretend they do.

If incomes were bucketed by $2500 increments from 100k up to maybe 500k, Steve could create a much more detailed version of his nice animated graph which would show the "toothpaste" gradually shifting to the right while retaining the same humped shape. That's a picture of growth and inflation, not people winning the lottery (so to speak). The spike at the right end is an artifact of limited data collection.

Jarrod Myrick

STS,

Town i live in median income 83k--where i'm from 38k. point is: if a man can't define and pursue his own happiness making 100k/yr in this economic-political union he ain't tryin hard enough. 100k is arbitrary sure, of course it is--this is the comments section of a man's blog neither of us's ever met. but if we wanted to meet him we could trade five hours of labor for a ticket to take an aeroplane trip to meet anywhere in our land in probably five hours or less. i don't know how to drive a horse carriage or operate a gatling gun or fear the dark. in relative terms to the history of humanity, we're gods.

cost of living? how many cars do you need? how many tvs do you want?

piannaf

I keep reading this blog because I love the way you work with data.

I recently came across "The Coming Collapse of the Middle Class" http://economistsview.typepad.com/economistsview/2008/04/the-coming-coll.html and it worried me how the speaker was working with data.

Especially worrisome for me was her idea of a debt treadmill which she assumes goes in the opposite direction of your animated graph.

She also compared a housewife in ~1970 who doesn't need an extra car or outside childcare to a working mother in ~2000 who does need both those things. Now, they may both be "the middle class" for each time period but it's a personal choice which changed their situations so I wonder what consequence that choice has in ~1970 vs ~2000.

Optimist123

piannaf:

Thanks for the link. Her analysis included both the income and expenditure sides of the household budget. She had some interesting data, but didn't control for the two basic causes of family insolvency: (1) bad luck, versus (2) financial incompetence. Health problems, job problems, spending problems, and education problems can fall into either category. For example, it is easy to feel badly for the person who was talked into a mortgage he couldn't afford -- until finding out he had a $250,000 salary, and was talked into a $2.5 million mortgage he couldn't handle. I place that one under the heading of incompetence, and have no desire whatsoever to pitch in to ease the pain of that particular insolvency.

I'm still wondering whether she thinks the solution would be more government-provided safety nets for families that stumble into insolvency for whatever reason, or for better education as to how to avoid insolvency due to incompetence.

Also, regarding the middle class: The census data leaves several questions unanswered, as you can see from my chart. For example, it is entirely possible that the distribution has become bimodal (twin peaks, with the higher one masked by the $100,000 cutoff). I'd be surprised at that, but cannot completely rule it out without seeing how the "above $100K" earners are distributed.

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